Property managers/owners are required to use a standardised tenancy application form as specified by the Act and the Residential Tenancies and Rooming Accommodation and Other Legislation Amendment Regulation 2025. 

It is an offence if the form does not comply with the standardised form prescribed under the legislation. Failure to comply is an offence under the legislation, with a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

For more information on the application form and process please read our Application process webpage.

Exemptions: Application form requirements for residential tenancies do not apply to relevant lessors for general tenancy agreements only. The Act outlines who qualifies as a relevant lessor. 

The Act refers to personal information as information or opinion about a specific person, or someone who can be reasonably identified, whether the information is true or not. It includes whether the information is recorded or not and also covers photographs or images of someone’s personal possessions or standard of living.

Note: parties should seek independent legal advice if they require more insight into what constitutes personal information. The RTA does not provide legal advice as to what does or does not constitute personal information other than what is stated in the Act, as outlined above.

To learn about the changes to the collection and storage of personal information during the application process and throughout the management of a tenancy please read our Personal information webpage.

The timeframe for entering a rental property is 48 hours. This timeframe does not change the rules for entry:

• based on mutual agreement
• for general inspections
• in emergencies
• if a property manager/owner reasonably believes that entry is necessary to protect the premises or its contents from imminent or further damage.

If a property manager/owner serves a Notice to leave (Form 12), or if a tenant/resident issues a Notice of intention to leave (Form 13), a property owner/manager cannot enter the property more than 2 times within a 7-day period.

The Act does not provide a list of reasons for a property manager/owner to enter twice during a 7-day period following the serving of a Notice to leave (Form 12) or Notice of intention to leave (Form 13).

A property manager/owner is allowed to enter the premises according to the rules of entry within the 7-day period; however, they should consider any impacts to a tenant’s right to quiet enjoyment when entering the premises multiple times in a short period.

The following grounds of entry are not subject to an entry limit during the 7-day period:  

• by mutual agreement with a tenant
• to comply with the Fire Services Act 1990 in relation to smoke alarms
• to comply with the Electrical Safety Act 2022 in relation to approved safety switches
• if a property manager/owner reasonably believes that entry is necessary to protect the premises or its contents from imminent or further damage.  

The Act specifies that if a property manager/owner issues a Notice to Leave (Form 12) or if a tenant/resident gives a Notice of Intention to Leave (Form 13), they cannot enter the property more than twice in a seven day period while that notice is in effect.

It’s important to note that if a Notice to Leave (Form 12) is issued at the beginning of the tenancy, it does not change the entry frequency limit rules. The usual entry frequency limit of twice in 7-days still applies once the notice period starts, regardless of when the notice is given.  

The timeframe for entering a room in rooming accommodation is 48 hours.

This new timeframe does not change the rules for entry:  

• based on mutual agreement  
• cleaning a room
• in emergencies
• if a provider reasonably believes that entry is necessary to protect the premises or its contents from imminent or further damage.

If a provider serves a Notice to Leave (Form R12), or if a resident issues a Notice of Intention to Leave (Form R13), the provider cannot enter the room more than twice within a 7-day period.

The following grounds of entry are not subject to entry frequency limits during the 7-day period:

• by mutual agreement with the resident
• in case of an emergency
• if the provider reasonably believes the room has been abandoned
• to carry out urgent repairs to the rental premises or its facilities, such as:
• repairing facilities that provide gas, electricity, or water
• making repairs to prevent imminent flooding or water damage
• emergency repairs to the roof of the premises
• repairing faults or damage that makes the premises unsafe or insecure, or unreasonably disrupts the residents use of the premises.

It’s important to note that if a Notice to Leave (Form R12) is issued at the beginning of the agreement, it does not change the entry frequency limit rules. The usual entry frequency limit of twice in 7 days still applies once the notice period starts, regardless of when the notice is given.

• A property manager/owner issues an Entry Notice (Form 9), which is received by the tenant on Monday. The purpose of the entry is to show the property to a prospective buyer/tenant, scheduled for Thursday. A 48-hour timeframe is required to achieve the purpose of entry. Another Entry Notice (Form 9) is issued on Tuesday to allow for evaluation at the premises, scheduled for Friday. A 48-hour timeframe is required to achieve the purpose of entry. 

   

Monday	Tuesday	Wednesday	Thursday	Friday	Saturday	Sunday
Image Entry Notice (Form 9) issued to show a prospective buyer/tenant	Image Entry Notice (Form 9) issued to show a prospective buyer/tenant		Image Entry	Image Entry

• A property manager/owner issues an Entry Notice (Form 9), which is received by the tenant on Monday, Week 1. The purpose of the entry is to perform a routine inspection. A 7-day timeframe is required to achieve the purpose of entry, which is scheduled for Tuesday, Week 2.
• An Entry Notice (Form 9) is issued on Tuesday, Week 1, to allow evaluation at the premises, scheduled for Thursday, Week 2. A 48-hour timeframe is required to achieve the purpose of entry.
• An Entry Notice (Form 9) is issued on Wednesday, Week 1, to enter the property on Friday, Week 2, to show a prospective buyer. A 48-hour timeframe is required to achieve the purpose of entry. 
   

Week/day	Monday	Tuesday	Wednesday	Thursday	Friday	Saturday	Sunday
Week 1	Image Entry Notice (Form 9) issued for a routine inspection	Image Entry Notice (Form 9) issued to allow evaluation	Image Entry Notice (Form 9) issued to show a prospective buyer
Week 2		Image Entry		Image Entry	Image Entry
Week 3

Because the entry occurs more than three times in a 7-day period, this is unlawful unless the tenant agrees. 

The RTRA Act does not prevent a property manager/owner from listing multiple reasons for entry on a single-Entry notice (Form 9). If only one entry is listed on the form, even with multiple reasons, it will be treated as a single entry. For example, following a natural disaster, a property manager or owner may need to address several issues within the rental property. In such situations, where the availability of tradespeople may be limited, combining multiple reasons for entry on a single notice can help facilitate timely inspections and repairs. However, if a single form is used to list multiple reasons but results in multiple entries, these will not be considered a single entry, even though they are on the same Entry notice (Form 9).

The Act also allows a property manager/owner to enter the rental property with another person if necessary to achieve the purpose of the entry. However, it does not specify a limit on how many people can be named on a single-entry notice for the same purpose. For example, it does not set a maximum number of people who can be listed to inspect the property on a single-entry form.

However, the RTA encourages all parties to consider the following:

• Is the number of people listed reasonable, based on the purpose of the entry? Is it reasonable to bring five or more prospective tenants to view the property at the same time?
• Is separate communication required to notify the tenant regarding the number of people proposed to enter the rental property, given the purpose?
• Could the proposed number of people be seen as an attempt to circumvent obtaining written consent from the tenant for conducting an open house?
• Could the proposed number of people compromise the tenant’s security and privacy?
• Does it respect the tenant’s right to peace and quiet enjoyment?

Some tenants may be open to having multiple prospective tenants inspect the property at the same time, rather than scheduling several separate entries. However, other tenants may prefer a different approach.

If the matter remains unresolved, parties can access the RTA’s free dispute resolution service. Please refer to the RTA’s resources for further information on the dispute resolution process. 

This question is relevant in scenarios where an entry notice has been issued, but the designated person is unavailable due to unplanned leave, or if the person originally assigned for the entry needs to be replaced. Under the legislation, specifically section 193, a property manager/owner is required to provide an Entry Notice (Form 9) to the tenant before entering the property.  

Section 194 allows the property manager/owner to bring another person with them if necessary to achieve the purpose of the entry (for example, showing the property to prospective buyers or tenants).  

If the person designated in the original entry notice cannot attend, someone else can enter in their place, provided the entry is still in line with the stated purpose. The entry must comply with the rules of entry, including the required notice period and the limitation on entry after a Notice to Leave or Notice of Intention to Leave has been issued.

In short, substitutes can enter without the need to reissue the notice, as long as the entry remains consistent with the original purpose and adheres to the overall rules of entry.

The Entry notice (Form 9) does not require the names of all individuals attending. The main purpose of the Entry Notice (Form 9) is to inform the tenant about the entry at a specific time and to let them know the reason for the entry. 

Under the legislation, specifically section 193, there is no explicit requirement to name the specific individuals who will be entering the property in the Entry Notice (Form 9). If the person performing the work or carrying out the purpose of entry (e.g., repairs, inspections, showing the property) is not known at the time of providing the notice, it is not mandatory to list their name.

It is also worth noting that the legislation does not prevent the property owner or agent from using a company name in the notice to indicate the entity performing the work, as long as the entry remains in line with the stated purpose.

However, the legislation does require that the purpose of the entry and the period of entry be clearly specified in the notice. As such, if the individual performing the work is not yet identified, the notice can indicate the type of person or role who will be entering (for example, "a qualified tradesperson" or "a representative of [Company Name]", rather than naming a specific individual.

In summary, it is not necessary to name specific individuals in the Entry Notice (Form 9), and the legislation allows for the use of a company name to indicate who will be entering. As long as the notice complies with the rules of entry, including the required notice period and entry limitations, the entry remains valid.

The Entry notice (Form 9) does not require the names of all individuals attending. The main purpose of the Entry Notice (Form 9) is to inform the tenant about the entry at a specific time and to let them know the reason for the entry. 

Tenants/residents are required to use the approved form to request permission from a property manager/owner to attach fixtures or make structural changes to the premises.

A property manager/owner must respond to a tenant/resident’s request within 28 days after receiving the request. They may agree to the request with specific conditions. A property manager/owner must not act unreasonably in refusing the request.

For more information on the process to request to attach a fixture or make a structural change please read our Attaching fixtures and structural changes webpage.

No, a property manager/owner is not required to use a specific form to respond to a tenant's/resident’s request. However, they should respond to a tenants/resident's request in writing.

If a tenant/resident and a property manager/owner agree to extend the consideration period beyond 28 days, both parties should clearly communicate their intention in writing as best practice.

A tenant/resident cannot attach fixtures or make structural changes to the premises solely because the property manager/owner has not responded within the 28-day timeframe and will be in breach of the agreement if they proceed with any work. The RTA strongly recommends that the tenant/resident continue communicating with the property manager/owner.  

If communication does not lead to a resolution, and the issue is important for the tenant/resident to address, they can request assistance through the RTA's dispute resolution service which is a free and impartial service. If conciliation does not result in a mutual agreement, the tenant/resident may need to apply to QCAT for a formal decision before proceeding with any alterations. The 28-day period without a response does not bypass the formal process, and following the correct procedures ensures compliance with legislative requirements 

If matters cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, and a tenant/resident still wishes to proceed, a tenant/resident can lodge a dispute resolution request with the RTA. If the matter is not resolved during the free, impartial conciliation process, the RTA will issue a Notice of Unresolved Dispute (NURD). Subsequently, the tenant/resident would need to apply to QCAT for a decision.

A property manager/owner has the option to:

• waive the breach
• consider the fixture or structural changes as an improvement for their benefit, or
• initiate a notice to remedy breach process.

If a tenant/resident lives in a property managed by a body corporate, and their rules or by-laws require approval for adding fixtures or making structural changes, these steps should be followed:

1. A tenant/resident should fill out the approved form and give it to a property manager/owner.
2. A property manager/owner must respond within 28 days of receiving the request and inform a tenant/resident of their decision and state that their approval is subject to the body corporate’s approval.
3. If approved by a property manager/owner, they must then submit a tenants/residents request to the body corporate within 28 days after receiving the request.
4. The body corporate will review and decide on a tenant/resident’s request (the 28 day period does not apply to body corporate) and the property manager/owner must advise the tenant/resident of the body corporate's decision regarding the request as soon as reasonably practicable.
5. If both a property manager/owner and the body corporate agree, a tenant/resident can proceed with the changes according to their conditions.

To attach a fixture or make a structural change, a property managers/owners’ approval must:

• be in writing
• describe the fixture or change
• specify any conditions.

Conditions may include:

• maintenance responsibilities if attached by a tenant/resident
• permission to remove the fixture
• procedures for removal if allowed
• the tenants/residents responsibility to repair any damage caused
• compensation if removal is not allowed for improvements made.

QCAT can decide on whether to allow the fixture or structural change based on factors including:

• how it might improve safety, security, and accessibility for a tenant/resident
• whether it can be removed or if the premises can be restored after the tenancy
• if it adds value and if the property owner sees it as an improvement
• whether building approvals are needed
• if a qualified tradesperson is required for installation
• if body corporate approval is necessary
• the extent of modification to the premises for structural changes
• any other relevant factors considered by the tribunal.

Fixtures can be attached, or structural changes made to a premises if they are necessary for tenant/resident safety, security, or accessibility, and comply with prescribed regulations. As the regulation has not been updated on this specific provision, the RTA will communicate with the sector about any future updates to the regulation.

Rent for a property can only be increased once in a 12 month period. The 12 month period continues to apply even if there is a change to a property manager/owner or tenant during this time. The maximum penalty for non-compliance is 50 penalty units.

If a tenant would like to obtain evidence of the date of the last rent increase for a rental property, they should contact their property manager/owner and request the information in writing.

For more information visit our rent increases webpage.

A prospective property manager/owner must not ask for or accept rent in advance from a prospective tenant for more than:

• one months rent for a fixed-term tenancy agreement
• two weeks rent for a periodic tenancy, moveable dwelling agreement and rooming accommodation agreement.  

The maximum penalty for non-compliance is 50 penalty units. Requesting rent for a period that rent has already been paid is an offence.

Throughout the course of a tenancy, a tenant may wish to negotiate with a property manager/owner about how much rent can be paid in advance.

The RTA encourages anyone involved in a tenancy to complete all information requested on a tenancy agreement.

However, it is not a mandatory requirement for a tenant to provide emergency contact information on a tenancy agreement. If a tenant chooses not to provide this information it may limit the avenues available for them to be contacted by a property owner/manager attempting to reconnect them with personal documents or money, as well as processes for selling goods left behind by auction.

If you are a head tenant or property owner who is renting less than three bedrooms in a property, and you reside at that property, the law requires you to lodge bonds with the RTA if one is taken.

If you are a property owner or provider and take a bond from a tenant, you must lodge it with the RTA within 10 days of receiving the bond. The maximum penalty for non-compliance is 40 penalty units.

Where a tenant has a private/commercial bond loan, the bond will be refunded to a tenant. Any outstanding debt owed by a tenant to a private/commercial bond provider is a matter for the parties involved.

Where a tenant has a bond loan from the Department of Housing (the Department), the Act requires the RTA to refund the bond money directly to the Department. After the Department has been paid the outstanding bond loan amount owed by a tenant, the RTA will refund any remaining bond monies to the tenant. For more information, visit our bond loan webpage.

Property managers/owners must offer tenants/residents at least two options to pay rent. One of these options must not exceed reasonable transactional costs (costs beyond standard transaction fees), and it must be reasonably accessible to the tenant/resident.

Fees charged by a third-party rent platform for using the platform may be considered unreasonable transaction costs.

This means that if a third-party rent platform charges fees to tenants/residents for paying their rent using the platform, another method of paying rent must be offered by a property manager/owner that is:

• a platform that does not cause a tenant/resident to incur costs (beyond standard transaction fees); and
• reasonably accessible to a tenant/resident, (the circumstances of each case dictates what is considered reasonably accessible).

Before signing a tenancy agreement, property managers/owners must provide a written notice outlining any associated costs incurred by using the payment methods offered. This is because property managers/owners should be aware of costs associated with the offered payment methods, especially if these costs are not reasonably known by the tenant/resident. Failure to comply is considered a breach of the Act, with a maximum penalty of 40 penalty units.

Additionally, from 1 May 2025 property managers/owners must disclose any financial benefits they may receive if the tenant/resident uses a specific rent payment method. 

For example, if a property manager/owner receives an incentive payment from a third-party platform or a share of the fees charged by the platform, it must be disclosed to the tenant/resident upfront. Non-compliance is also considered a breach of the Act, with a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

Direct debit is an automatic transaction that transfers money from one bank account to another. This is usually set up by a tenant/resident and allows a recurring withdrawal of money from their nominated bank account to pay rent.

The Act does not define what reasonable transactional costs are; however, it does offer guidance that such costs could include:

• bank fees for direct debits
• cash advance fees for credit card transactions
• any other account fees typically incurred by tenants/residents.

Similarly, the Act does not define what ‘reasonably accessible to the tenant/resident’ means. This is because what may be considered reasonable for one tenant/resident could be impractical for another tenant/resident, depending on their unique situation. What is considered reasonable must be assessed on a case-by-case basis.

There are two options for either a property manager/owner or a tenant/resident to change rent payment methods during a tenancy.

1. Option one – changes to payment methods by agreement:
   • a property manager/owner or tenant/resident provides written notice to the other party requesting a change to rent payment methods
   • the other party reviews the proposed changes and agrees in writing
   • the new rent payment methods are then used going forward, replacing the methods in the original tenancy agreement.

2. Option two – changes to payment methods without agreement:

   • a property manager/owner provides written notice to a tenant/resident offering at least two new payment methods
   • one method must not exceed reasonable transaction costs to the tenant/resident and must be reasonably accessible to the tenant/resident
   • a tenant/resident must adopt one of the new methods provided within 14 days of receiving the notice.

   Both options one and two, require a property manager/owner to:

   • Provide written notice to a tenant/resident outlining any costs associated with the new rent payment methods offered. This is because property managers/owners should be aware of costs associated with the offered payment methods, especially if these costs are not reasonably known by a tenant/resident. Failure to comply is a breach of the Act, with a maximum penalty up to 40 penalty units.
   • From 1 May 2025, disclose any financial benefits they may receive if a tenant/resident uses a specific rent payment method. Failure to comply is also a breach of the Act, with a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

The changes do not apply to existing agreements. However, if a property manager/owner intends to change how rent is paid during an existing agreement, they must notify a tenant/resident about any associated costs, or from 1 May 2025 any financial benefits a property manager/owner may receive as a result of using the new payment method.

The date of the last rent increase must be included in the tenancy agreement. Tenants have the right to request written proof of the last rent increase during the tenancy, and the property manager or owner must provide this information within 14 days. However, these requirements do not apply in the following cases:

• Exempt Lessors: the Act outlines who qualifies as an exempt lessor.  
• For properties purchased between 6 June 2023 and 6 June 2025: the requirement to include the date of the last rent increase in the tenancy agreement and to provide evidence of a rent increase upon the tenant’s request does not apply if the new owner or property manager does not have information about the previous rent increase.
• For properties being rented for the first time: the date of the last rent increase is the date the property is first rented.

Note: A property manager/owner is considered to have evidence of the last rent increase if they or their agent (such as a real estate agent, property manager, or lawyer) has this information. 

If you are concerned the rent increase may be less than 12 months since the last increase for the residential premises, you can ask the property manager/owner in writing to provide evidence of the last increase.

Some rent increase rules do not apply to exempt property managers/owners. The Act provides definitions for an exempt property manager/owner.

Rental bonds lodged on or after 30 September 2024 require supporting evidence to be provided to a tenant/resident when a property manager/owner claims or disputes a bond refund request. This must be done within 14 days of the bond claim or dispute. Not providing supporting evidence to a tenant/resident when a claim or dispute is made against a bond is an offence.

For rental bonds lodged with the RTA before 30 September 2024, a 12 month transitional period from 30 September 2024 to 30 September 2025 applies. Evidence does not need to be provided for bond claims until after this period expires for bonds lodged with the RTA before 30 September 2024. 

Failure to comply is a breach of the Act, with a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

If a tenant/resident has impaired or limited capacity, either under guardianship or power of attorney, a property manager/owner must provide supporting evidence to the appointed person or representative, or to both a tenant/resident and their representative.

Note: evidence must be provided to the tenant/resident, not to the RTA.  

For rental bonds lodged with the RTA before the proclamation date 30 September 2024, a 12 month transitional period from 30 September 2024 to 30 September 2025 will apply, allowing the sector to prepare for this change. This means that evidence does not need to be provided for bond claims until after this period expires.

Rental bonds lodged on or after the proclamation date 30 September 2024 will require supporting evidence to be provided to a tenant/resident when a property manager/owner claims or disputes a bond refund request within 14 days of the bond claim or dispute.

Not providing supporting evidence to a tenant/resident when a claim or dispute is made against a bond is an offence. Failure to comply with these requirements may result in a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

Note: evidence must be provided to the tenant/resident, not to the RTA.  

No, these are two distinct processes. The 14 day Notice of claim for a bond claim is not the same as the 14 day period for a property manager/owner to provide supporting evidence to a tenant/resident. For further information review the Notice of claim process online.

Although property managers/owners are obligated to provide supporting evidence to tenants/residents within 14 days, a tenant/resident may dispute a bond claim by lodging a dispute resolution request with the RTA within the timeframe specified in the Notice of claim process.

If a tenant/resident fails to do so it will result in the disputed bond amount being paid to a property manager/owner even if evidence has not been provided to a tenant/resident. However, failing to provide evidence is an offence under the Act and the RTA will investigate incidents of non-compliance.   

The Act does not define supporting evidence; however, it does offer examples of acceptable evidence such as:

• receipts
• repair quotes
• records of unpaid rent.

A property manager/owner must make reasonable efforts to contact a tenant/resident within 14 days of the bond claim or bond dispute lodgement to provide supporting evidence. If, despite these efforts, they are unable to reach the tenant/resident, the requirement to provide evidence does not apply.

Although the Act does not define what reasonable efforts means examples of acceptable efforts including:

• a call, text, email, or a private message to the tenant/resident on social media
• contacting an emergency contact listed in the tenancy agreement, or
• if a tenant/resident has impaired or limited capacity, either under guardianship or power of attorney, a property manager/owner must provide supporting evidence to the appointed person or representative, or to both the tenant/resident and their representative.

The maximum bond allowed to be taken is equivalent to four weeks' rent, regardless of the weekly rent amount. It is a breach of the Act to take a bond exceeding four weeks' rent, with a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.

No, as the original bond was lodged before 30 September 2024, a 12 month transitional period from 30 September 2024 to 30 September 2025 applies. Evidence does not need to be provided for bond claims until after this period expires for bonds lodged with the RTA before 30 September 2024.

Reletting costs for fixed-term agreements are calculated based on how much of the lease has expired. The specific reletting costs depend on how much of the agreed tenancy duration has passed when a tenant/resident vacated:

For agreements up to 3 years it's the lower amount of the specified reletting costs or the rent until a new tenant/resident moves in.

In these examples, the RTA illustrates how reletting costs are calculated based on different scenarios of lease duration and weekly rent. For instance, with a fixed lease term of 12 months and a weekly rent of $500:

• less than 25% of fixed term expired – if a tenant/resident breaks the lease after 3 months (25% expired), the reletting cost would be 4 weeks' rent, totalling $2,000
• 25% to less than 50% of fixed term expired – breaking the lease after 6 months (50% expired), results in a reletting cost of 3 weeks' rent, totalling $1,500
• 50% to less than 75% of fixed term expired – breaking the lease after 9 months (75% expired), results in a reletting cost of 2 weeks' rent, totalling $1,000
• 75% or more of fixed term expired – if the lease is broken after 11 months (91.67% expired), the reletting cost would be 1 week's rent, totalling $500.

These calculations demonstrate how reletting costs vary depending on the percentage of the tenancy term that has expired at the time of tenancy termination, using a weekly rent of $500 as the basis.

For agreements over 3 years, reletting cost is the lesser of:

• 1 month’s rent for each 12-month period remaining of the term of the agreement, up to a maximum amount equal to 6 months' rent, or
• based on the rent that would be payable until a new agreement begins after the premises are relet.

Due to the complexity of individual tenancy arrangements, the RTA does not provide reletting cost calculation services as this is best calculated between parties using the guidance and examples provided above.

We have developed an online reletting costs calculator to support tenants/residents and property managers/owners to independently calculate reletting costs based on their specific lease terms and rental agreements.

This calculator does not constitute legal or financial advice and should not be relied upon as such. Users should conduct their own calculations tailored to their specific situation.

If there is a dispute about reletting costs that cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the matter may proceed as follows:

1. Bond claim dispute: the dispute can be addressed through the bond claim process at the end of the tenancy
2. Notice of Unresolved Dispute: if the dispute is not resolved during conciliation, the RTA will issue a Notice of Unresolved Dispute
3. QCAT resolution: the unresolved dispute will then be referred to the Queensland Civil and Administrative Tribunal (QCAT) for a formal decision.

No additional costs can be requested from a tenant/resident. Reletting costs are calculated based on how much of the tenancy remains. However, this calculation does not include any outstanding amounts such as unpaid rent in arrears, service charges, or damages to the property where a tenant/resident is still accountable.

Any amount specified in a QCAT order in relation to reletting costs in favour of a property manager/owner cannot exceed the reletting costs that would be payable using the calculations as set out in the Act.

Residential tenancy agreements entered into before 30 September 2024, that include a term requiring tenants/residents to pay reasonable costs for reletting the premises and comply with the requirements of the previous section (s357A (1)) will be considered compliant under the Act and will still apply at the agreement end date.

For general service charges in tenancy agreements, moveable dwellings, and rooming accommodations where tenants/residents pay for utilities or other services, a property manager/owner must provide a tenant/resident with a copy of the document from the relevant service provider that shows the charges. This must be done within four weeks of the property manager/owner receiving the document.

This requirement applies to individually metered utilities for moveable dwellings including utilities services for rooming accommodations. It does not include service charges or utilities services that are included in the rent.

A tenant/resident is not required to pay for service charges if a property manager/owner fails to provide a copy of the document from the relevant service provider showing the charges within four weeks of receiving it to a tenant/resident. This applies to general tenancy, and rooming accommodation agreements and moveable dwellings.

It's a document given to a property owner by the water supplier. It shows how much a property owner must pay for water used in the property.

Partial billing refers to a billing for a period that includes only part, not all, of the time covered by the water usage charges document. For example, if a tenancy agreement starts on 1 February, but the water usage charges are specified from 1 January to 31 March, the partial billing period would be from 1 February to 31 March.

A tenant/resident pays for water during a partial billing period if the following conditions are met:

• the premises has its own water meter
• the premises meets water efficiency standards
• a meter reading is recorded in either the entry or exit condition report
• the partial billing period starts when the rental agreement begins
• the amount owed is calculated based on a reasonable estimate of a tenants/resident’s water consumption using the meter reading from the entry or exit report
• the rate used for calculation is the current rate stated in the water consumption charges.

The Act does not specifically address partial billing for moveable dwellings and rooming accommodation agreements. However, the RTA strongly encourages property managers/owners to adopt the approach used for general tenancy agreements to prevent potential issues during and at the end of a tenancy.

To prevent disputes, the RTA strongly advises both parties ensure the meter reading is recorded in both entry and exit conditions reports at the beginning and end of the tenancy.

The Act does not specify who is responsible for recording the meter reading in these reports. According to section 166A (2) of the Act, a tenant/resident may not be required to pay for water consumption charges for a partial billing period if the meter reading is not recorded in an entry or exit condition report if:  

• the start of the agreement aligns with the beginning of the billing period, or
• the billing period ends when the tenant/resident hands over the premises.

No, an existing rental bond for a current tenancy agreement that exceeds four weeks rent does not constitute a breach. If a new or renewed agreement is signed on or after 30 September 2024, the new laws will apply from this point.

Before 30 September 2024, property managers/owners were allowed to request a rental bond exceeding the equivalent of four weeks rent if the rent was more than $700 per week for general tenancy agreements, and $500 per week for rooming accommodation agreements.

Excess bond amounts can only be claimed if a tenancy is renewed after 30 September 2024. After this date, a rental bond cannot exceed the equivalent of 4 weeks rent and the tenant/resident can claim any excess bond amounts from the RTA using the Excess bond refund for tenants (Form 4b), which requires all bond contributors to sign and submit the form after the renewed tenancy has commenced, before it can be processed by the RTA.

If a tenant/resident chooses not to claim any excess bond amounts during a tenancy, the bond will remain with the RTA until the tenancy ends and a Refund of rental bond (Form 4) is lodged.

A property manager/owner may voluntarily release any excess bond amount to a tenant/resident using a Refund of rental bond (Form 4) to partially refund the current bond.

A tenant/resident is not required to claim, and a property manager/owner is not required to refund the excess bond if a tenancy agreement is renewed after 30 September 2024.

However, if a tenancy is renewed after 30 September 2024 and a tenant/resident chooses to claim any excess bond amounts, all bond contributors must provide their signatures on the Excess bond refund for tenants (Form 4b) and the form must be signed and submitted after the renewed tenancy has commenced for the claim to be processed by the RTA.  

If all contributors do sign, the RTA must notify the property manager/owner of the new bond amount after the excess bond has been refunded. This refund cannot be disputed.

If all contributors do not sign, the refund request for the excess bond cannot proceed and will need to wait until the end of the tenancy for a non-agreed bond refund process. 

No, a claim for the excess bond cannot be processed if all bond contributors do not sign the Excess bond refund for tenants (Form 4b). All contributors must provide their signatures for the claim to be processed.

The RTA recognises that bond contributors can change during a tenancy. The bond record can be updated with a Change of Bond Contributors request.

The RTA cannot process the refund request without signatures from all bond contributors. If not all contributors sign, the refund request for the excess bond cannot proceed and will need to wait until the end of the tenancy for a non-agreed bond refund process.

If a tenancy is renewed after 30 September 2024 and the bond exceeds the equivalent of four weeks rent, a tenant/resident can claim the excess bond. The RTA will notify the property manager/owner of the new bond amount after the excess bond has been refunded.

If a tenancy is renewed after 30 September 2024, the RTA is required to refund excess bond to a tenant/resident if they submit the new excess bond refund form that will be created signed by all bond contributors, and if the bond exceeds the equivalent of four weeks rent based on the current weekly rent amount. This refund cannot be disputed.

Note: this is not an automatic process and a claim must be lodged by submitting a Refund of excess bond for tenants (Form 4b). 

Amendments to the Act prohibit a person from giving the authority (the RTA) a document that knowingly contains false or misleading information. This applies to all forms of written communication to the RTA, not just submitting online forms. It also applies to anyone who provides information to the RTA, not just tenants/residents and property managers/owners. The maximum penalty for knowingly providing false or misleading information to the RTA is 20 penalty units.

The RTA may disclose confidential information in accordance with the provisions outlined in section 527 of the legislation, under the following circumstances:

• for the purpose of the Act: information may be disclosed if it is necessary for the administration or enforcement of the Residential Tenancies and Rooming Accommodation Act 2008
• consent: disclosure may occur with the consent of the individual to whom the information relates
• legal requirements: information may be disclosed as required by a court, tribunal, authority, or person with lawful authority to request such information
• supporting legislation: disclosure is permitted if the information is needed to support the administration of the Agents Financial Administration Act 2014 or the Property Occupations Act 2014
• rental bonds: information may be disclosed if it is required for administering, receiving, holding, or paying rental bonds
• other laws: disclosure is allowed if required or authorised under any other law
• public safety: information may be disclosed if the person reasonably considers it necessary to prevent a serious risk to public safety.